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A grocery store is expressing security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy currently being performed by locally attached disks. The main concerns are the physical security of the backup media and the durability of the data stored on these devices Which of the following is a cost-effective approach to address these concerns?

  • A. Enhance resiliency by adding a hardware RAID.
  • B. Move data to a tape library and store the tapes off-site
  • C. Install a local network-attached storage.
  • D. Migrate to a cloud backup solution

Answer: D

a backup strategy is a plan that defines how to protect data from loss or corruption by creating and storing copies of data on a different medium or location1. A backup strategy should consider the security and reliability of the backup data and the backup storage234.
Based on these definitions, the best option that is a cost-effective approach to address the security and reliability concerns regarding the on-site backup strategy would be D. Migrate to a cloud backup solutio2n4. A cloud backup solution can provide several benefits, such as:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Enhanced physical security of the backup data by storing it in a remote location that is protected by multiple layers of security measures.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Enhanced durability of the backup data by storing it on highly reliable storage devices that are replicated across multiple availability zones or regions.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Reduced costs of backup storage by paying only for the amount of data stored and transferred, and by using features such as compression, deduplication, encryption, and lifecycle management.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Increased flexibility and scalability of backup storage by choosing from various storage classes and tiers that match the performance and availability requirements of the backup data.


An organization is outlining data stewardship roles and responsibilities. Which of the following employee roles would determine the purpose of data and how to process it?

  • A. Data custodian
  • B. Data controller
  • C. Data protection officer
  • D. Data processor

Answer: B

A data controller is an employee role that would determine the purpose of data and how to process it. A data controller is a person or entity that decides why and how personal data is collected, used, stored, shared, or deleted. A data controller has the responsibility to comply with data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and to ensure the rights and privacy of data subjects.
References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-data-controller


Developers are writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day. where it is tested automatically. Which of the following concepts does this best represent?

  • A. Functional testing
  • B. Stored procedures
  • C. Elasticity
  • D. Continuous Integration

Answer: D

Continuous Integration is the concept that best represents developers writing code and merging it into shared repositories several times a day, where it is tested automatically. Continuous Integration is a software development practice that involves integrating code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and running automated tests to ensure quality and functionality. Continuous Integration can help to detect and fix errors early, improve collaboration, reduce rework, and accelerate delivery. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-devops


Which of the following involves the inclusion of code in the main codebase as soon as it is written?

  • A. Continuous monitoring
  • B. Continuous deployment
  • C. Continuous Validation
  • D. Continuous integration

Answer: D

Continuous Integration (CI) is a practice where developers integrate code into a shared repository frequently, preferably several times a day. Each integration is verified by an automated build and automated tests. CI allows for the detection of errors early in the development cycle, thereby reducing overall development costs.


A security analyst reports a company policy violation in a case in which a large amount of sensitive data is being downloaded after hours from various mobile devices to an external site. Upon further investigation, the analyst notices that successful login attempts are being conducted with impossible travel times during the same time periods when the unauthorized downloads are occurring. The analyst also discovers a couple of WAPs are using the same SSID, but they have non-standard DHCP configurations and an overlapping channel. Which of the following attacks is being conducted?

  • A. Evil twin
  • B. Jamming
  • C. DNS poisoning
  • D. Bluesnarfing
  • E. DDoS

Answer: A

The attack being conducted is an Evil twin attack. An Evil twin attack involves creating a rogue wireless access point (WAP) with the same Service Set Identifier (SSID) as a legitimate WAP to trick users into connecting to it. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or steal login credentials. The successful login attempts with impossible travel times suggest that an attacker is using a stolen or compromised credential to access the external site to which the sensitive data is being downloaded. The non-standard DHCP configurations and overlapping channels of the WAPs suggest that the attacker is using a rogue WAP to intercept traffic. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.4 Compare and contrast types of attacks, p. 8


A company's public-facing website, https://www.organization.com, has an IP address of However, over the past hour the SOC has received reports of the site's homepage displaying incorrect information. A quick nslookup search shows hitps://;www.organization.com is pointing to Which of the following is occurring?

  • A. DoS attack
  • B. ARP poisoning
  • C. DNS spoofing
  • D. NXDOMAIN attack

Answer: C

The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7


A security analyst needs to recommend a solution that will allow current Active Directory accounts and groups to be used for access controls on both network and remote-access devices. Which of the
following should the analyst recommend? (Select two).

  • A. TACACS+
  • C. OAuth
  • D. OpenlD
  • E. Kerberos
  • F. CHAP

Answer: BE

RADIUS and Kerberos are two protocols that can be used to integrate Active Directory accounts and groups with network and remote-access devices. RADIUS is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. It can use Active Directory as a backend database to store user credentials and group memberships. Kerberos is a protocol that provides secure authentication and encryption for network services. It is the default authentication protocol for Active Directory and can be used by remote-access devices that support it.


A user received an SMS on a mobile phone that asked for bank details. Which of the following social engineering techniques was used in this case?

  • A. SPIM
  • B. Vishing
  • C. Spear phishing
  • D. Smishing

Answer: D

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.


Which of the following is a solution that can be used to stop a disgruntled employee from copying confidential data to a USB drive?

  • A. DLP
  • B. TLS
  • C. AV
  • D. IDS

Answer: A

DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp


A company is focused on reducing risks from removable media threats. Due to certain primary applications, removable media cannot be entirely prohibited at this time. Which of the following best describes the company's approach?

  • A. Compensating controls
  • B. Directive control
  • C. Mitigating controls
  • D. Physical security controls

Answer: C

Mitigating controls are designed to reduce the impact or severity of an event that has occurred or is likely to occur. They do not prevent or detect the event, but rather limit the damage or consequences of it. For example, a backup system is a mitigating control that can help restore data after a loss or corruption.
In this case, the company is focused on reducing risks from removable media threats, which are threats that can compromise data security, introduce malware infections, or cause media failure123. Removable media threats can be used to bypass network defenses and target industrial/OT environments2. The company cannot prohibit removable media entirely because of certain primary applications that require them, so it implements mitigating controls to lessen the potential harm from these threats.
Some examples of mitigating controls for removable media threats are:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Encrypting data on removable media
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Scanning removable media for malware before use
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Restricting access to removable media ports
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Implementing policies and procedures for removable media usage and disposal
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Educating users on the risks and best practices of removable media


An air traffic controller receives a change in flight plan for an morning aircraft over the phone. The air traffic controller compares the change to what appears on radar and determines the information to be false. As a result, the air traffic controller is able to prevent an incident from occurring. Which of the following is this scenario an example of?

  • A. Mobile hijacking
  • B. Vishing
  • C. Unsecure VoIP protocols
  • D. SPIM attack

Answer: B

Vishing is a form of phishing that uses voice calls or voice messages to trick victims into revealing personal information, such as credit card numbers, bank details, or passwords. Vishing often uses spoofed phone numbers, voice-altering software, or social engineering techniques to impersonate legitimate organizations or authorities. In this scenario, the caller pretended to be someone who could change the flight plan of an aircraft, which could have caused a serious incident.


Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas?

  • A. Persistence
  • B. Port scanning
  • C. Privilege escalation
  • D. Pharming

Answer: C

Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-2-secure-code-design-and-im


An organization recently released a zero-trust policy that will enforce who is able to remotely access certain data. Authenticated users who access the data must have a need to know, depending on their level of permissions.
Which of the following is the first step the organization should take when implementing the policy?

  • A. Determine a quality CASB solution.
  • B. Configure the DLP policies by user groups.
  • C. Implement agentless NAC on boundary devices.
  • D. Classify all data on the file servers.

Answer: D

zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.
According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Reference: Zero Trust implementation guidance | Microsoft Learn


Which Of the following is a primary security concern for a setting up a BYOD program?

  • A. End of life
  • B. Buffer overflow
  • C. VM escape
  • D. Jailbreaking

Answer: D

Jailbreaking is a process of bypassing or removing the manufacturer-imposed restrictions on a mobile device’s operating system, allowing users to install unauthorized applications, modify settings, etc. It is a primary security concern for setting up a BYOD program because it can expose the device and its data to malware, vulnerabilities, unauthorized access, etc


An employee's laptop was stolen last month. This morning, the was returned by the A cyberrsecurity analyst retrieved laptop and has since cybersecurity incident checklist Four incident handlers are responsible for executing the checklist. Which of the following best describes the process for evidence collection assurance?

  • A. Time stamp
  • B. Chain of custody
  • C. Admissibility
  • D. Legal hold

Answer: B

Chain of custody is a process that documents the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of materials, including physical or electronic evidence. Chain of custody is important to ensure the integrity and admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings. Chain of custody can help evidence collection assurance by providing proof that the evidence has been handled properly and has not been tampered with or contaminated.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.thoughtco.com/chain-of-custody-4589132


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