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A cyber security administrator is using iptables as an enterprise firewall. The administrator created some rules, but the network now seems to be unresponsive. All connections are being dropped by the firewall Which of the following would be the best option to remove the rules?

  • A. # iptables -t mangle -X
  • B. # iptables -F
  • C. # iptables -2
  • D. # iptables -P INPUT -j DROP

Answer: B

iptables is a command-line tool that allows an administrator to configure firewall rules for a Linux system. The -F option flushes or deletes all the existing rules in the selected chain or in all chains if none is given. It can be used to remove the rules that caused the network to be unresponsive and restore the default firewall behavior.


While reviewing the /etc/shadow file, a security administrator notices files with the same values. Which of the following attacks should the administrator be concerned about?

  • A. Plaintext
  • B. Birthdat
  • C. Brute-force
  • D. Rainbow table

Answer: D

Rainbow table is a type of attack that should concern a security administrator when reviewing the /etc/shadow file. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores encrypted passwords of users in a Linux system. A rainbow table is a precomputed table of hashes and their corresponding plaintext values that can be used to crack hashed passwords. If an attacker obtains a copy of the /etc/shadow file, they can use a rainbow table to find the plaintext passwords of users.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/rainbow-table-in-cryptography/


A company was recently breached. Part of the company's new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the logs from all security devices. Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?

  • A. Log enrichment
  • B. Log queue
  • C. Log parser
  • D. Log collector

Answer: D

A log collector can collect logs from various sources, such as servers, devices, applications, or network components, and forward them to a central source for analysis and storage23.


Which of the following is used to quantitatively measure the criticality of a vulnerability?

  • A. CVE
  • B. CVSS
  • C. CIA
  • D. CERT

Answer: B

The correct answer is B. CVSS.
CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System. It is a framework that provides a standardized way to measure the criticality of a vulnerability based on various factors, such as the impact, exploitability, and remediation level of the vulnerability. CVSS assigns a numerical score from 0 to 10 to each vulnerability, where 0 means no risk and 10 means the highest risk. CVSS also provides a qualitative rating for each score, such as low, medium, high, or critical. CVSS helps organizations prioritize the remediation of vulnerabilities based on their severity and potential impact12.
CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures. It is a list of publicly known and standardized identifiers for vulnerabilities and exposures in software and hardware systems. CVE provides a brief description of each vulnerability or exposure, but does not assign a score or rating to them. CVE helps organizations communicate and share information about vulnerabilities and exposures in a consistent and reliable way3 .
CIA stands for Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. It is a model that defines the three main objectives of information security. Confidentiality means protecting data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Integrity means ensuring data is accurate and consistent and has not been tampered with. Availability means ensuring data is accessible and usable by authorized parties when needed. CIA helps organizations design and implement security controls and policies to protect their data and systems .
CERT stands for Computer Emergency Response Team. It is a group of experts who respond to security incidents and provide guidance and assistance to mitigate and prevent cyberattacks. CERT also conducts research and analysis on cybersecurity trends and issues, and disseminates information and best practices to the public. CERT helps organizations improve their security posture and resilience against cyber threats .
For more information on CVSS and other concepts related to vulnerability assessment and management, you can refer to [this video] or [this guide] from CompTIA Security+.


Which of the following best describes the situation where a successfully onboarded employee who is using a fingerprint reader is denied access at the company's mam gate?

  • A. Crossover error rate
  • B. False match raw
  • C. False rejection
  • D. False positive

Answer: C

False rejection Short
A false rejection occurs when a biometric system fails to recognize an authorized user and denies access. This can happen due to poor quality of the biometric sample, environmental factors, or system errors. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-biometrics


Which of the following disaster recovery tests is the LEAST time consuming for the disaster recovery team?

  • A. Tabletop
  • B. Parallel
  • C. Full interruption
  • D. Simulation

Answer: A

A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery test that simulates a disaster scenario in a discussion-based format, without actually disrupting operations or requiring physical testing of recovery procedures. It is the least time-consuming type of test for the disaster recovery team.


Which of the following processes would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges?

  • A. Lessons learned
  • B. Identification
  • C. Simulation
  • D. Containment

Answer: A

Lessons learned is a process that would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges. Lessons learned is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response exercise to identify what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. Lessons learned can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, address any gaps or weaknesses, and update its incident response plan accordingly.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901


A user is trying unsuccessfully to send images via SMS. The user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone. Which of the following policies is preventing the user from completing this action?

  • A. Application management
  • B. Content management
  • C. Containerization
  • D. Full disk encryption

Answer: B

Content management is a policy that controls what types of data can be accessed, modified, shared, or transferred by users or applications. Content management can prevent data leakage or exfiltration by blocking or restricting certain actions, such as copying, printing, emailing, or sending data via SMS. If the user downloaded the images from a corporate email account on a work phone, the content management policy may prevent the user from sending the images via SMS to protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data.
References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0: Architecture and
Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 2
Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.1: Implement
secure network architecture concepts 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention


A security analyst received the following requirements for the deployment of a security camera solution:
* The cameras must be viewable by the on-site security guards.
+ The cameras must be able to communicate with the video storage server.
* The cameras must have the time synchronized automatically.
* The cameras must not be reachable directly via the internet.
* The servers for the cameras and video storage must be available for remote maintenance via the company VPN.
Which of the following should the security analyst recommend to securely meet the remote connectivity requirements?

  • A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on
  • B. Deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network that can communicate with the servers
  • C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering
  • D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server

Answer: B

A jump server is a system that is used to manage and access systems in a separate security zone. It acts as a bridge between two different security zones and provides a controlled and secure way of accessing systems between them12. A jump server can also be used for auditing traffic and user activity for real-time surveillance 3. By deploying a jump server that is accessible via the internal network, the security analyst can securely meet the remote connectivity requirements for the servers and cameras without exposing them directly to the internet or allowing outgoing traffic from their subnet. The other options are not suitable because:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit A. Creating firewall rules that prevent outgoing traffic from the subnet the servers and cameras reside on would not allow remote maintenance via the company VPN.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit C. Disabling all unused ports on the switch that the cameras are plugged into and enabling MAC filtering would not prevent direct internet access to the cameras or servers.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit D. Implementing a WAF to allow traffic from the local NTP server to the camera server would not address the remote connectivity requirements or protect the servers from internet access.
1: https://www.thesecuritybuddy.com/network-security/what-is-a-jump-server/ 3:
https://www.ssh.com/academy/iam/jump-server 2: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jump_server


An analyst is working on an email security incident in which the target opened an attachment containing a worm. The analyst wants to Implement mitigation techniques to prevent further spread. Which of the
following is the best course of action for the analyst to take?

  • A. Apply a DLP solution.
  • B. Implement network segmentation.
  • C. Utilize email content filtering.
  • D. Isolate the infected attachment.

Answer: D

Isolating the infected attachment is the best course of action for the analyst to take to prevent further spread of the worm. A worm is a type of malware that can self-replicate and infect other devices without human interaction. By isolating the infected attachment, the analyst can prevent the worm from spreading to other devices or networks via email, file-sharing, or other means. Isolating the infected attachment can also help the analyst to analyze the worm and determine its source, behavior, and impact. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.security.org/antivirus/computer-worm/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://sec.cloudapps.cisco.com/security/center/resources/worm_mitigation_whitepaper.html


A global company is experiencing unauthorized logging due to credential theft and account lockouts caused by brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third-party identity provider to help mitigate these attacks. Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective vendors?

  • A. IP restrictions
  • B. Multifactor authentication
  • C. A banned password list
  • D. A complex password policy

Answer: B

Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2


A user reports constant lag and performance issues with the wireless network when working at a local coffee shop A security analyst walks the user through an installation of Wireshark and gets a five-minute pcap to analyze. The analyst observes the following output:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit
Which of the following attacks does the analyst most likely see in this packet capture?

  • A. Session replay
  • B. Evil twin
  • C. Bluejacking
  • D. ARP poisoning

Answer: B

An evil twin is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. In this packet capture, the analyst can see that there are two access points with the same SSID (CoffeeShop) but different MAC addresses (00:0c:41:82:9c:4f and 00:0c:41:82:9c:4e). This indicates that one of them is an evil twin that is trying to impersonate the other one.


A Chief Information Officer is concerned about employees using company-issued laptops to steal data when accessing network shares. Which of the following should the company implement?

  • A. DLP
  • B. CASB
  • C. HIDS
  • D. EDR
  • E. UEFI

Answer: A

The company should implement Data Loss Prevention (DLP) to prevent employees from stealing data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 8


A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One of the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability to use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even through the data is still viewable from the user’s PCs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

  • A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts
  • B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file
  • C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.config instead of using the sshd.conf
  • D. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Answer: B

SSH stands for Secure Shell Protocol, which is a cryptographic network protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution on a network device12. SSH can encrypt both the authentication information and the data being exchanged between the client and the server2. SSH can be used to access and manage a NAS device remotely3.


A user is trying to upload a tax document, which the corporate finance department requested, but a security program IS prohibiting the upload A security analyst determines the file contains Pll, Which of
the following steps can the analyst take to correct this issue?

  • A. Create a URL filter with an exception for the destination website.
  • B. Add a firewall rule to the outbound proxy to allow file uploads
  • C. Issue a new device certificate to the user's workstation.
  • D. Modify the exception list on the DLP to allow the upload

Answer: D

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies are used to identify and protect sensitive data, and often include a list of exceptions that allow certain types of data to be uploaded or shared. By modifying the exception list on the DLP, the security analyst can allow the tax document to be uploaded without compromising the security of the system. (Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Textbook, page 479-480)


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