All About Free 156-215.80 Pdf Exam

Exam Code: 156-215.80 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator
Certification Provider: Check-Point
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NEW QUESTION 1

Fill in the blanks. There are _____ types of software containers ______

  • A. Three; security managemen
  • B. Security Gateway and endpoint security.
  • C. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint Security, and gateway management.
  • D. Two; security management and endpoint security
  • E. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2

You can see the following graphic:
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
What is presented on it?

  • A. Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.
  • B. Shared secret properties of John’s password.
  • C. VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.
  • D. Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

  • A. SmartManager
  • B. SmartConsole
  • C. Security Gateway
  • D. Security Management Server

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

Which default user has full read/write access?

  • A. Monitor
  • B. Altuser
  • C. Administrator
  • D. Superuser

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5

You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

  • A. restore_backup
  • B. import backup
  • C. cp_merge
  • D. migrate import

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

  • A. ifconfig -a
  • B. show interfaces
  • C. show interfaces detail
  • D. show configuration interface

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

  • A. host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • B. mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • C. add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90
  • D. mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8

An internal router is sending UDP keep-alive packets that are being encapsulated with GRE and sent through your R77 Security Gateway to a partner site. A rule for GRE traffic is configured for ACCEPT/LOG. Although the keep-alive packets are being sent every minute, a search through the SmartView Tracker logs for GRE traffic only shows one entry for the whole day (early in the morning after a Policy install).
Your partner site indicates they are successfully receiving the GRE encapsulated keep-alive packets on the 1-minute interval.
If GRE encapsulation is turned off on the router, SmartView Tracker shows a log entry for the UDP keep-alive packet every minute.
Which of the following is the BEST Explanation: for this behavior?

  • A. The setting Log does not capture this level of detail for GR
  • B. Set the rule tracking action to Audit since certain types of traffic can only be tracked this way.
  • C. The log unification process is using a LUUID (Log Unification Unique Identification) that has become corrup
  • D. Because it is encrypted, the R77 Security Gateway cannot distinguish between GRE session
  • E. This is a known issue with GR
  • F. Use IPSEC instead of the non-standard GRE protocol for encapsulation.
  • G. The Log Server log unification process unifies all log entries from the Security Gateway on a specific connection into only one log entry in the SmartView Tracke
  • H. GRE traffic has a 10 minute session timeout, thus each keep-alive packet is considered part of the original logged connection at the beginning of the day.
  • I. The Log Server is failing to log GRE traffic properly because it is VPN traffi
  • J. Disable all VPN configuration to the partner site to enable proper logging.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

  • A. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161
  • B. Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116
  • C. Quicker than Full sync
  • D. Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

You have discovered activity in your network. What is the BEST immediate action to take?

  • A. Create a policy rule to block the traffic.
  • B. Create a suspicious action rule to block that traffic.
  • C. Wait until traffic has been identified before making any changes.
  • D. Contact ISP to block the traffic.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

  • A. Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path
  • B. Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path
  • C. Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path
  • D. Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

  • A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
  • B. Log Server
  • C. SmartEvent
  • D. Multi-domain management server

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13

You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?
1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.
2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.
3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.
4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.
5. Install the Security Policy.

  • A. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
  • B. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
  • C. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
  • D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

You find that Users are not prompted for authentication when they access their Web servers, even though you have created an HTTP rule via User Authentication. Choose the BEST reason why.

  • A. You checked the cache password on desktop option in Global Properties.
  • B. Another rule that accepts HTTP without authentication exists in the Rule Base.
  • C. You have forgotten to place the User Authentication Rule before the Stealth Rule.
  • D. Users must use the SecuRemote Client, to use the User Authentication Rule.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

  • A. To satellites through center only
  • B. To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets
  • C. To center and to other satellites through center
  • D. To center only

Answer: A

Explanation:
SmartConsole
For simple hubs and spokes (or if there is only one Hub), the easiest way is to configure a VPN star community in R80 SmartConsole:
On the Star Communitywindow, in the:
Center Gateways section, select the Security Gateway that functions as the "Hub".
Satellite Gateways section, select Security Gateways as the "spokes", or satellites.
On the VPN Routing page, Enable VPN routing for satellites section, select one of these options:
To center and to other Satellites through center - This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways, for example if the spoke Security Gateways are DAIP Security Gateways, and the Hub is a Security Gateway with a static IP address.
To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets - This allows connectivity between the Security Gateways as well as the ability to inspect all communication passing through the Hub to the Internet.
Create an appropriate Access Control Policy rule.
NAT the satellite Security Gateways on the Hub if the Hub is used to route connections from Satellites to the Internet.
The two Dynamic Objects (DAIP Security Gateways) can securely route communication through the Security Gateway with the static IP address.

NEW QUESTION 16

The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?

  • A. BGP, OSPF, RIP
  • B. BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP
  • C. BGP, OSPF, RIP, PIM, IGMP
  • D. BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Advanced Routing Suite
The Advanced Routing Suite CLI is available as part of the Advanced Networking Software Blade.
For organizations looking to implement scalable, fault-tolerant, secure networks, the Advanced Networking blade enables them to run industry-standard dynamic routing protocols including BGP, OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 on security gateways. OSPF, RIPv1, and RIPv2 enable dynamic routing over a single autonomous system—like a single department, company, or service provider—to avoid network failures. BGP provides dynamic routing support across more complex networks involving multiple autonomous systems—such as when a company uses two service providers or divides a network into multiple areas with different administrators responsible for the performance of each.

NEW QUESTION 17

In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:

  • A. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.
  • B. A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.
  • C. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.
  • D. A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 18

What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

  • A. Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
  • B. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Cloud, Capsule Connect
  • C. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Connect
  • D. Capsule Workspace, Capsule Docs, Capsule Cloud

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

  • A. Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration
  • B. CPUSE online upgrade
  • C. CPUSE offline upgrade
  • D. SmartUpdate upgrade

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20

Fill in the blank; The position of an Implied rule is manipulated in the _____ window

  • A. NAT
  • B. Firewall
  • C. Global Properties
  • D. Object Explorer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21

What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?

  • A. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings
  • B. Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception
  • C. Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception
  • D. Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

  • A. The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rule
  • B. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.
  • C. Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.
  • D. Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.
  • E. Sub Policies are sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rule
  • F. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

Which tool CANNOT be launched from SmartUpdate R77?

  • A. IP Appliance Voyager
  • B. snapshot
  • C. GAiA WebUI
  • D. cpinfo

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24

You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the right protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor. Which Check Point products protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

  • A. IPS and Application Control
  • B. IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot
  • C. IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security
  • D. SandBlast

Answer: D

Explanation:
SandBlast Zero-Day Protection
Hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. Zero-day exploit protection from Check Point provides a deeper level of inspection so you can prevent more malware and zero-day attacks, while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users.

NEW QUESTION 25
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