A Review Of Validated PMP Exam Dumps

NEW QUESTION 1

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

• A. Project Risk Management
• B. Project Human Resource Management
• C. Project Scope Management
• D. Project Stakeholder Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

• A. Responsibility assignment matrix
• B. Work breakdown structure update
• C. Project network diagram
• D. Mandatory dependencies list

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

• A. Project Time Management
• B. Project Cost Management
• C. Project Scope Management
• D. Project Human Resource Management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

• A. Estimate Activity Resources
• B. Estimate Costs
• C. Determine Budget
• D. Control Costs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following is an input of the Define Activities process?

• A. Scope baseline
• B. Milestone list
• C. Resource calendars
• D. Activity list

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

• A. Activity sequencing
• B. Resource leveling
• C. Lead and lag adjusting
• D. Crashing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

• A. organizational skills
• B. technical skills
• C. communication skills
• D. hard skills

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

• A. Matrix diagram
• B. Histogram
• C. Control chart
• D. Flowchart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9

Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?

• A. Define Activities
• B. Estimate Activity Durations
• C. Develop Schedule
• D. Sequence Activities

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

• A. Independent estimates.
• B. Selected sellers.
• C. Seller proposals.
• D. Resource calendars.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 11

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet
the procurement documents requirements?

• A. Technical approach
• B. Technical capability
• C. Business size and type
• D. Production capacity and interest

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

• A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
• B. Develop Project Management Plan
• C. Close Project
• D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:

• A. work package
• B. deliverable
• C. milestone
• D. activity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

• A. Recognized by every project manager
• B. Constantly evolving
• C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
• D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

• A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
• B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
• C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.
• D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

• A. start-to-start (SS)
• B. start-to-finish (SF)
• C. finish-to-start (FS)
• D. finish-to-finish (FF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

The stakeholder register is an output of:

• A. Identify Stakeholders.
• B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
• C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
• D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

• A. Control Quality
• B. Control Scope
• C. Monitor and Control Project Work
• D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

• A. Qualitative risk analysis
• B. Risk monitoring and control
• C. Monitor and control project work
• D. Risk response planning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 20

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

• A. planned.
• B. conceived.
• C. chartered.
• D. executed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 21

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

• A. stakeholder management strategy.
• B. communications management plan,
• C. stakeholder register,
• D. performance report.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

• A. Earned value management.
• B. Enterprise environmental factors.
• C. Organizational process assets.
• D. Work performance information.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

• A. management
• B. response
• C. tolerance
• D. appetite

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 24

Types of internal failure costs include:

• A. inspections.
• B. equipment and training.
• C. lost business.
• D. reworking and scrapping.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 25

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

• A. Schedule network analysis
• B. Reserve analysis
• C. Alternative analysis
• D. Variance analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 26
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