Cisco 642-997 Braindump 2021

NEW QUESTION 1

Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?

• A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
• B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
• C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
• D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.

Answer: C

Explanation:
From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500
Series device can manage and support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2 and Layer 3.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513
_n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html

NEW QUESTION 2

Which policy-map action performs congestion avoidance?

• A. priority
• B. bandwidth
• C. queue-limit
• D. random-detect

Answer: D

Explanation:
Congestion avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads in an effort to anticipate and avoid congestion at common network bottlenecks. Congestion avoidance is achieved through packet dropping. Among the more commonly used congestion avoidance mechanisms is Random Early Detection (RED), which is optimum for high-speed transit networks. Cisco IOS QoS includes an implementation of RED that, when configured, controls when the router drops packets. If you do not configure Weighted Random Early
Detection (WRED), the router uses the cruder default packet drop mechanism called tail drop.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcfconav.ht ml

NEW QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands are missing from this configuration that an admin needs to integrate a Cisco Nexus 5000 switch with vCenter to leverage VM-FEX? (Choose two.)

• A. vmware dvs datacenter-name <VMWare Datacenter name>
• B. vmware dvs <DVS name>
• C. remote ip address <vCenter IP> port 80 vrf <vrf>
• D. connection-type vmware
• E. installation-method auto

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 4

Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.)

• A. M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.
• B. M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity.
• C. F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity.
• D. M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set.
• E. The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC.

Answer: AD

Explanation:
Cisco is introducing a new line card called as F3 Module which has rich feature set and offers high performance 40G/100G port density to the Nexus 7000 product family. Cisco also introduced a new feature in NX-OS 6.2(2) where the F2e line card can be in the same VDC as M1 or M2 Line Card. The objective of this session is to cover detailed steps and methodology of migrating Nexus 7000 with VDC types prior to NX-OS 6.2 to the newer F3 or M/F2e VDC types. The session also covers the effect of VDC migration with commonly used Network features, firewall and load balancer services.
M-Series XL modules support larger forwarding tables. M-Series modules are frequently required at network core, peering, and aggregation points. When used with the F1-Series, the M-Series modules provide inter-VLAN services and form a pool of Layer 3 resources for the system.
Reference: https://www.ciscolive2014.com/connect/sessionDetail.ww?SESSION_ID=2244 And http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/VMDC/2-6/vmdctechwp.html

NEW QUESTION 5

Which feature allows routing protocols to remain in the data path during a supervisor failover?

• A. Cisco Nonstop Forwarding
• B. Cisco Stateful Switchover
• C. Cisco Express Forwarding
• D. Cisco Route Processor Redundancy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

What is the role of the system manager in a stateful process restart?

• A. performing software upgrades
• B. launching, stopping, monitoring, and restarting services
• C. handling message routing and queuing between services
• D. storing and managing the operational runtime information of processes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7

When connecting Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches to the VMware vCenter Server, which item must be configured before installing the extension keys?

• A. configure vPC
• B. configure DirectPath I/O support in vCenter
• C. configure PTS on the VSM
• D. configure dynamic vNICs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

For which two reasons would you enter these commands in a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch? (Choose two.)
n5k(config)# int ethernet 1/21
n5k(config-if)# priority-flow-control mode on

• A. The peer device requires this configuration for proper spanning-tree operation.
• B. The peer device does not support LLDP.
• C. The Cisco Nexus 5000 chassis is not DCBX capable.
• D. Unexpected DCBX negotiation occurred with the peer device.
• E. UDLD is also configured on interface ethernet 1/21.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 9

The Connectivity Management Processor monitors the active supervisor module on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch and will reboot the device in the event of a lights-out management issue. However, which option includes features that provide similar benefits in the absence of the Connectivity Management Processor?

• A. high-availability functionality from features such as vPC and NSF
• B. traditional system connectivity models like SNMP, GUI, or SSH
• C. Cisco FabricPath
• D. VDC failover

Answer: A

Explanation:
vPC uses the vPC peer-keepalive link to run hello messages that are used to detect a dual- active scenario. A Gigabit Ethernet port can be used to carry the peer-keepalive messages. A dedicated VRF is recommended to isolate these control messages from common data packets. When an out-of-band network infrastructure is present, the management interfaces of the Cisco Nexus 7000 supervisor could be also used to carry keep-alive connectivity using the dedicated management VRF. When the vPC peer-link is no longer detected, a dual-active situation occurs, and the system disables all vPC port channel member on the "secondary" vPC peer (lower vPC role priority value). Also SVI interfaces
associated to a vPC VLAN are suspended on the secondary switch. As a result, in this condition only the “primary” vPC peer actively forwards traffic on the vPC VLANs. Multiple peer-keepalive links can be used to increase resiliency of the dual-active detection mechanism.
Both the Cisco Catalyst 6500 and the Cisco Nexus 7000 offer a variety of high-availability features. Some of the primary features to highlight are In Service Software Upgrade (ISSU), Stateful Switchover (SSO), and Nonstop Forwarding (NSF). The operation and the behavior of these features are unique to the respective platform and can be independently executed without affecting the interoperability between the two platforms.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/white_paper_c11_589890.html

NEW QUESTION 10

Which two types of traffic are carried over a vPC peer link when no failure scenarios are present? (Choose two.)

• A. multicast data traffic
• B. unicast data traffic
• C. broadcast data traffic
• D. vPC keep-alive messages

Answer: AC

Explanation:
The vPC peer link is the link used to synchronize states between the vPC peer devices. The vPC peer link carries control traffic between two vPC switches and also multicast, broadcast data traffic. In some link failure scenarios, it also carries unicast traffic. You should have at least two 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces for peer links.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-series-switches/configuration_guide_c07-543563.html

NEW QUESTION 11





FabricPath switch-id is 25 and load-balance is configured for L3/L4 and rotate amount is 14 byte. What information is true about FabricPath switch-id?

• A. FabricPath topology requires manual configuration of switch-id which has a range from 1 to 4095
• B. Every FabricPath must have a manually configured switch-id for it to form a FabricPath topology
• C. FabricPath topology requires manual configuration of switch-id which has a range from 1 to 4099
• D. You do not have to manually assign a switch ID unless you are running a virtual port channel plus (vPC+) because the system assigns a switch ID for you when you enable FabricPath

Answer: D

Explanation:
fabricpath switch-id (vPC)
To configure a virtual port channel plus (vPC+) switch ID, use the fabricpath switch-id command. To remove the FabricPath switch from a vPC domain, use the no form of this command.
fabricpath switch-id switch-id
no fabricpath switch-id [ switch-id ]
Usage Guidelines
You do not have to manually assign a switch ID (unless you are running a vPC+); the system assigns a switch ID for you when you enable FabricPath.
Note You must assign the same vPC+ switch ID to each of the two vPC+ peer devices before they can form an adjacency.
This command requires an Enhanced Layer 2 license.
Examples
This example shows how to configure a vPC+ switch ID on a FabricPath-enabled device: switch# configure terminal
switch(config)# vpc domain 1
switch(config-vpc-domain)# fabricpath switch-id 1
Configuring fabricpath switch id will flap vPCs. Continue (yes/no)? [no]

NEW QUESTION 12

In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?

• A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
• B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
• C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
• D. forwarded using destination-based routing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Each entry in a route map contains a combination of match and set statements. The match statements define the criteria for whether appropriate packets meet the particular policy (that is, the conditions to be met). The set clauses explain how the packets should be routed once they have met the match criteria.
You can mark the route-map statements as permit or deny. You can interpret the statements as follows:
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets meet the match criteria, the set clause is applied. One of these actions involves choosing the next hop.
• If a statement is marked as deny, the packets that meet the match criteria are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets do not match any route-map statements, the packets are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3pbr.pdf

NEW QUESTION 13

Which three parameters can be set when configuring a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch to use a TACACS+ server? (Choose three.)

• A. group-size
• B. deadtime
• C. timeout
• D. keep-alive
• E. retransmit

Answer: BCE

NEW QUESTION 14

Which two items are required components of VN-Link in software? (Choose two.)

• A. VDC
• B. VEM
• C. vPC
• D. VSM
• E. VRRP

Answer: BD

Explanation:
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series consists of two main types of components that can virtually emulate a 66-slot modular Ethernet switch with redundant supervisor functions:
• Virtual Ethernet module (VEM)-data plane: This lightweight software component runs inside the hypervisor. It enables advanced networking and security features, performs switching between directly attached virtual machines, provides uplink capabilities to the rest of the network, and effectively replaces the vSwitch. Each hypervisor is embedded with one VEM.
• Virtual supervisor module (VSM)-control plane: This standalone, external, physical or virtual appliance is responsible for the configuration, management, monitoring, and diagnostics of the overall Cisco Nexus 1000V Series system (that is, the combination of the VSM itself and all the VEMs it controls) as well as the integration with VMware vCenter. A single VSM can manage up to 64 VEMs. VSMs can be deployed in an active-standby model, helping ensure high availability.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmware-vsphere/white_paper_c11-525307.html

NEW QUESTION 15

Which two statements about implementing Cisco NPV and NPIV on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch are true? (Choose two.)

• A. STP must run inside the FP network.
• B. All VLANs must be in the same mode, CE, or FP.
• C. FP port can join the private and nonprivate VLANs.
• D. Only F and M series modules can run FabricPath.
• E. These require an enhanced Layer 2 license to run.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 16

Which two elements must be configured correctly for Cisco TrustSec Fibre Channel Link Encryption to work on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)

• A. AES-GMAC
• B. key
• C. salt
• D. AAA
• E. group

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 17

Which command activates the port security database for VSAN 1 regardless of conflicts?

• A. port-security commit vsan 1
• B. no port-security auto-learn vsan 1
• C. port-security activate vsan 1 force
• D. port-security database vsan 1

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

What is the Overlay Transport Virtualization site VLAN used for?

• A. to allow the join interfaces at different sites to communicate
• B. to detect devices at the site that are not capable of OTV
• C. to allow multiple site AEDs to communicate with each other
• D. to detect other OTV edge devices in the site

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 19

Which Cisco NX-OS feature allows transparent Layer 2 extension between sites?

• A. FabricPath
• B. ETV
• C. OTV
• D. vPC
• E. LISP
• F. TrustSec

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20

Which parameter is configurable when setting up logging on the Connectivity Management Processor?

• A. the number of CMP messages to save in a single log file
• B. the number of times the log can roll over
• C. the directory to save the log file to
• D. the severity threshold of the messages to log

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
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