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NEW QUESTION 1
What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats, which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

  • A. Cisco Umbrella
  • B. External Threat Feeds
  • C. Cisco Threat Grid
  • D. Cisco Stealthwatch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10. What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

  • A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
  • B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
  • C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
  • D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/vpn_client/anyconnect/anyconnect46/administration/guide/b_AnyConnect_Administrator_Guide_4-6/configure-posture.html

NEW QUESTION 3
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?

  • A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
  • B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
  • C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
  • D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

NEW QUESTION 4
Which Talos reputation center allows you to track the reputation of IP addresses for email and web traffic?

  • A. IP Blacklist Center
  • B. File Reputation Center
  • C. AMP Reputation Center
  • D. IP and Domain Reputation Center

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?

  • A. Cisco SDA
  • B. Cisco Firepower
  • C. Cisco HyperFlex
  • D. Cisco Cloudlock

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlock-cloud-data-security-datasheet.pdf

NEW QUESTION 6
Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

  • A. DMZ multiple zone mode
  • B. transparent firewall mode
  • C. multiple context mode
  • D. routed mode

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the deployment?

  • A. NGFW
  • B. AMP
  • C. WSA
  • D. ESA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?

  • A. authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
  • B. authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
  • C. authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX
  • D. secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

Answer: B

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/security/a1/sec-a1-cr-book/sec-cr-c4.html#wp6039879000

NEW QUESTION 9
Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

  • A. SDN controller and the network elements
  • B. management console and the SDN controller
  • C. management console and the cloud
  • D. SDN controller and the cloud

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?

  • A. username and password
  • B. encryption method
  • C. device serial number
  • D. registration key

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d

NEW QUESTION 11
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

  • A. dot1x system-auth-control
  • B. dot1x pae authenticator
  • C. authentication port-control auto
  • D. aaa new-model

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-command-reference/802_1x_commands.html

NEW QUESTION 12
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? (Choose two.)

  • A. SIP
  • B. inline normalization
  • C. SSL
  • D. packet decoder
  • E. modbus

Answer: AC

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html

NEW QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrustion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
350-701 dumps exhibit


Solution:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/640/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v64/detecting_specific_threats.html

Does this meet the goal?
  • A. Yes
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

  • A. CMX
  • B. WMI
  • C. Prime Infrastructure
  • D. Telemetry

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

  • A. exchange
  • B. pull messaging
  • C. binding
  • D. correlation
  • E. mitigating

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 16
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