Cisco 200-125 Practice 2021

NEW QUESTION 1

Which three statements about DWDM are true? (Choose three)

• A. It allows a single strand of fiber to support bidirectional communications
• B. It is used for long-distance and submarine cable systems
• C. It can multiplex up to 256 channels on a single fiber
• D. It supports both the SDH and SONET standards
• E. Each channel can carry up to a 1-Gbps signal
• F. It supports simplex communications over multiple strands of fiber

Answer: CDE

Explanation:
ref: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/optical/ps2011/products_data_sheet09186a008012a900.html

NEW QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. However, host A is unavailable. The administrator's attempt to telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings to the other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

• A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
• B. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
• C. Host B needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
• D. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
• E. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP addresses assigned.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ping was successful form host B to other hosts because of intervlan routing configured on router. But to manage switch via telnet the VLAN32 on the switch needs to be configured interface vlan32 along with ip address and its appropriate default-gateway address.
Since VLAN1 interface is already configure on switch Host A was able to telnet switch.

NEW QUESTION 3

Drag and drop the CSMA components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Access mode used for Ethernet networks = 1-Persistent
Access mode used for Wi-fi networks = P-Persistent
Access mode used in the controller area network = O-persistent
Rules that define the system response when a collision occurs on an Ethernet network = CSMA/CD Rules that define the system response when a collision occurs on a Wi-Fi network = CSMA/CA

NEW QUESTION 4

Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6?

• A. metric weights
• B. ipv6 summary-address eigrp
• C. ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
• D. ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5

On which OSI layer does a VLAN operate?

• A. Layer 1
• B. Layer 2
• C. Layer 3
• D. Layer 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6

Which type of secure MAC address must be configured manually?

• A. static
• B. dynamic
• C. sticky
• D. bia

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

You are implementing ElGRP between the main office and branch offices. In Phase 1 you must implement and verify EIGRP configurations as mentioned in the topology in Phase 2. your colleague is expected to do NAT and ISP configurations
Identity the issues that you are encountering during Phase 1 EIGRP implementation.
• Router R1 connects the main office to the Internet and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers
• Routers Branch 1 and Branch2 connect to router R2 in the main office.
• Users from the Branch1 LAN network 10 20 40 0724 are expected to perform testing of the application that is hosted on the servers in Server farm1, before servers are available for production
- The GRE tunnel is configured between R3 and Branch1, and traffic between server farm1 and Branch1 LAN network 10 20 40 0/24 is routed through the GRE tunnel using static routes
• The link between Branch1 and Branch2 is used as a secondary path in the event of failure of the primary path to mam office
You have console access on R1. R2. R3. Branch1, and Branch2 devices Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues
Topology:




The GRE tunnel between R3 and Branch1 is down. Which cause of the issue is true?

• A. The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in Branch1.
• B. The tunnel source loopback0 interface is not advertised into EIGRP in R3.
• C. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to EIGRP packets blocked by the inbound ACL on R3.
• D. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due the IP address being misconfigured between the R2 and R3 interfaces.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8

Drag and drop the QoS features from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Best effort = service level that provides basic connectivity without differentiation CAR = Polices traffic based on its bandwidth allocation
Hard Qos = service level that provides reserved network resources NBAR = identification tool ideal for handling web application PBR = uses route maps to match traffic criteria
Soft Qos = service level that provides preferred handling
http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/Quality_of_Service_Networking#CAR:_Setting_IP_Precedence

NEW QUESTION 9

Which two results occur when the ipv6 enable command is entered? (Choose two)

• A. An IPv6 EUI-64 interface ID is configured automatically on the interface.
• B. IPv6 is enabled on a single interface.
• C. An IPv6 link-local unicast address is configured automatically on the interface.
• D. The administrator is prompted to configure an IP address on the interface
• E. IPv6 is enabled globally on the device.

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 10

Which command can you enter to configure an IPv6 floating static route?

• A. router(config)#ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 1
• B. router (config)#ipv6 route ::/0 serial 0/1
• C. router(config)#ipv6 route static resolve default
• D. router(config)#ipv6 route FE80.0202::/32 serial 0/1 201

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

How many host addresses are available on the network 192.168.1.0 subnet 255.255.255.240 ?

• A. 6
• B. 8
• C. 14
• D. 16

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12

Which two advantages do dynamic touting protocols provide over static routing? (Choose two)

• A. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing.
• B. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers.
• C. Dynamic routing protocols ate easier to manage on very large networks.
• D. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic it possible.
• E. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing.

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 13

which functionality does split horizon provide ?

• A. it Prevents routing loops in distance vector protocols
• B. it Prevents switching loops in distance vector protocols
• C. it Prevents switching loops in link-state protocols
• D. it Prevents routing loops in link-state protocols

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14

Which statement about unique local IPv6 addresses is true?

• A. Summarization is not supported.
• B. They require all prefixes to be unique.
• C. Their global IDs are assigned sequentially.
• D. They are routable to the public Internet.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15








Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?

• A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
• B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
• C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
• D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Branch2 network is communicating to the Server farm, which is connected to R2, via GRE Tunnel so we should check the GRE tunnel first to see if it is in “up/up” state with the “show ip interface brief” command on the two routers.
On Branch2:

On R2:

We see interfaces Tunnel0 at two ends are “up/up” which are good so we should check for the routing part on two routers with the “show running-config” command and pay attention to the static routing of each router. On Branch2 we see:

R2_show_run_static.jpg
The destination IP address for this static route is not correct. It should be 192.168.24.1 (Tunnel0’s IP address of R2), not 192.168.24.10 -> Answer C is correct.
Note: You can use the “show ip route” command to check the routing configuration on each router but if the destination is not reachable (for example: we configure “ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.24.10” on Branch2, but if 192.168.24.10 is unknown then Branch2 router will not display this routing entry in its routing table.

NEW QUESTION 16

Which definition of default route is true?

• A. A route that is manually configured.
• B. A route used when a destination route is missing.
• C. A route to the exact /32 destination address
• D. Dynamic route learned from the server.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17

Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?

• A. NAT
• B. 6to4 tunneling
• C. L2TPv3
• D. dual-stack

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 18

Which three functions are major components of a network virtualization architecture? (Choose three.)

• A. network access control
• B. virtual network services
• C. policy enforcement
• D. authentication services
• E. network resilience
• F. path isolation

Answer: ABF

Explanation:
Network virtualization architecture has three main components: + Network access control and segmentatio classes of users: Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component identifies users who are authorized to access the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition. + Path isolation: Network isolation is preserved across the entire enterprise: from the edge to the campus to the WAN and back again. This component maintains traffic partitioned over a routed infrastructure and transports traffic over and between isolated partitions. The function of mapping isolated paths to VLANs and to virtual services is also performed in component.+ Network Services virtualization: This component provides access to shared or dedicated network services such as security, quality of service (QoS), and address management (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol [DHCP] and Domain Name System [DNS]). It also applies policy per partition and isolates application environments, if required.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/catalyst-6500-series-switches/white_paper_c11-5315

NEW QUESTION 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the route 172.61.3.16/28 are true? (Choose two)

• A. It has a metric of 1
• B. It is less preferred than dynamically learned routes
• C. It is preferred over dynamically learned routes
• D. It was learned from a remote router
• E. It has a default administrative distance of 1

Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 20

Which three values can be included in the routing table of a router? (Choose three)

• A. classful and classless destination addresses
• B. source interfaces
• C. Routgoing interfaces
• D. source IP addresses
• E. next hop IP address
• F. destination IP addresses

Answer: CDF

NEW QUESTION 21

Drag and drop the BGP terms from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
external BGP = peers are in different autonomous systems (AS) internal BGP = peers are in the same autonomous systems
Autonomous System = separate network operating within one administrative domain Private autonomous system (AS)= numbers which range from 64512 to 65535 Public AS = between 1 and 64511
Prefix = block of ip addresses

NEW QUESTION 22

Refer to the exhibit.

The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. Which steps would be the most effective to troubleshoot this physical layer problem?

• A. Ensure the switch has power.
• B. Reseat all cables.
• C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
• D. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
• E. Reboot all of the devices.
• F. Ensure that cables A and are straight-through cables.

Answer: ABF

NEW QUESTION 23

What is the benefit of point-to-point leased line ?

• A. Low cost
• B. Full-mesh capability
• C. Flexibillity of design
• D. Simply configuration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 24

Drag and drop the extended traceroute options from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 25

Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?

• A. NAT pool
• B. dynamic NAT
• C. static NAT
• D. one-way NAT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26

Which configuration can be used with PAT to allow multiple inside address to be translated to a single outside address ?

• A. Dynamic Routing
• B. DNS
• C. Preempt
• D. overload

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 27

Which command should you enter to configure a single port to discard inferior BPDUs?

• A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
• B. spanning-tree guard root
• C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
• D. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 28
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